Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 6 Global Success có đáp án

Kì thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 6 sắp đến mà con vẫn loay hoay với ngữ pháp, từ vựng và đọc hiểu? Đừng để nỗi lo mất điểm khiến con ôn tập lan man, thiếu trọng tâm. Trong bài chia sẻ dưới đây, Pantado gửi đến ba mẹ bộ đề thi tiếng Anh học kì 1 theo chương trình Global Success kèm đáp án, giúp con làm quen dạng bài, rèn tốc độ và tự tin đạt điểm cao.

Kiến thức trọng tâm ôn thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 6 Global Success

Trước khi luyện đề, học sinh cần nắm chắc kiến thức của 6 Unit đầu tiên trong sách giáo khoa.

Unit	Chủ đề	Nội dung trọng tâm
Unit 1	My New School	Trường học, môn học, đồ dùng học tập
Unit 2	My House	Các phòng, đồ nội thất, giới từ
Unit 3	My Friends	Ngoại hình, tính cách, sở thích
Unit 4	My Neighbourhood	Địa điểm, chỉ đường, so sánh hơn
Unit 5	Natural Wonders of Viet Nam	Cảnh quan thiên nhiên, địa điểm du lịch
Unit 6	Our Tet Holiday	Từ vựng và hoạt động ngày Tết

Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp quan trọng

Chủ điểm	Cấu trúc
Hiện tại đơn	S + V(s/es)
Hiện tại tiếp diễn	S + am/is/are + V-ing
Sở hữu cách	N + ‘s + N
Giới từ chỉ vị trí	In, on, under, behind, between
So sánh hơn	S + be + adj-er/more adj + than
Must/Mustn’t	S + must/mustn’t + V
Should/Shouldn’t	S + should/shouldn’t + V
Some/Any	Some/any + danh từ

Nắm được những nội dung quan trọng ở trên, học sinh hoàn toàn có thể chinh phục 9+ điểm thi tiếng Anh.

Bộ đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 6 Global Success

ĐỀ THI SỐ 1

Tải miễn phí đề thi số 1 file Word và PDF

Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success | Thời gian: 45 phút

I. PRONUNCIATION (1.0 point)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

1. A. cat  B. map  C. father  D. bag
2. A. ship  B. shop  C. she  D. see
3. A. thin  B. thank  C. this  D. three
4. A. books  B. maps  C. desks  D. pens

VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (3.0 points)

Choose the best answer A, B, C or D.

5. My mother ______ breakfast for my family every morning.

A. cook  B. cooks  C. is cooking  D. cooking

6. There is a big table ______ the middle of the dining room.

A. at  B. on  C. in  D. between

7. We ______ use mobile phones during the examination.

A. must  B. mustn’t  C. should  D. can

8. My new school is ______ than my old school.

A. modern  B. more modern  C. most modern  D. the modern

9. ______ your brother usually walk to school?

A. Do  B. Does  C. Is  D. Are

10. There aren’t ______ apples in the basket.

A. some  B. much  C. any  D. a

III. READING (3.0 points)

1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (1.5 points).

My name is Hoa. I live in a small house with my parents and younger brother. My favourite room is my bedroom. It is not very large, but it is bright and comfortable. There is a bed next to the window and a desk opposite the bed. I usually do my homework at the desk. There are also some bookshelves where I keep my favourite books. I love spending time in my room because it is quiet and tidy.

11. Who does Hoa live with?

A. Her grandparents  B. Her friends  C. Her family  D. Her cousins

12. Which room does Hoa like best?

A. The kitchen  B. The bedroom  C. The living room  D. The bathroom

13. Where is the bed?

A. Next to the window  B. Behind the door  C. Near the bookshelf  D. Opposite the desk

14. What does Hoa do at her desk?

A. She watches TV  B. She sleeps  C. She cooks  D. She does her homework

15. Why does Hoa like her room?

A. It is large and expensive.

B. It is quiet and tidy.

C. It has a television.

D. It is next to the kitchen.

2. Read the passage and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F) (1.5 points).

My family often goes on a picnic at weekends. We usually choose a park near our home. My father prepares sandwiches and drinks, while my mother brings some fruit. My sister and I help put everything into a large bag. At the park, we play badminton, ride our bikes and take photos. Before going home, we always collect our rubbish and put it in the bins. We want to keep the park clean and beautiful.

16. The family usually goes on a picnic at weekends.

17. They often visit a park far away from their home.

18. The father prepares sandwiches and drinks.

19. The children never help their parents prepare for the picnic.

20. The family collects rubbish before going home.

WRITING (3.0 points)

Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences (1.5 points).

21. every morning / brushes / her teeth / Mai

22. is / the supermarket / next to / the bank

23. often / in the evening / watches / my father / television

Rewrite the sentences without changing their meanings (1.5 points).

24. My house has three floors.

→ There __________________________________________.

25. No student in my class is taller than Nam.

→ Nam is _________________________________________.

26. It is a good idea to bring a map when travelling.

→ You should ______________________________________.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1. Đáp án trắc nghiệm

Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án
1	C	6	C
2	D	7	B
3	C	8	B
4	D	9	B
5	B	10	C
11	C	12	B
13	A	14	D
15	B

2. Đáp án đọc hiểu và viết

Câu	Đáp án
16	True
17	False
18	True
19	False
20	True

1. Mai brushes her teeth every morning.
2. The supermarket is next to the bank.
3. My father often watches television in the evening.
4. There are three floors in my house.
5. Nam is the tallest student in my class.
6. You should bring a map when travelling.

ĐỀ THI SỐ 2

Tải miễn phí đề thi số 2 file Word và PDF

Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success | Thời gian: 45 phút

I. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (3.0 points)

Choose the best answer A, B, C or D.

1. Listen! Someone ______ at the door.

A. knocks  B. knock  C. is knocking  D. are knocking

2. My birthday is ______ October.

A. on  B. in  C. at  D. between

3. You ______ eat too much candy. It is bad for your teeth.

A. should  B. shouldn’t  C. must  D. can

4. This is my sister. ______ name is Lucy.

A. His  B. Her  C. My  D. Their

5. The red dress is ______ than the blue one.

A. beautiful  B. more beautiful  C. most beautiful  D. the beautiful

6. How ______ milk do you need?

A. many  B. often  C. much  D. far

PRONUNCIATION (1.0 point)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

1. A. make  B. lake  C. cake  D. map
2. A. city  B. cinema  C. centre  D. cold
3. A. watches  B. boxes  C. classes  D. lamps
4. A. these  B. those  C. then  D. think

III. READING (3.0 points)

1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (1.5 points).

Da Nang is a beautiful city in central Viet Nam. It has many interesting places for visitors. My Khe Beach is famous for its long sandy beach and clear water. Visitors can swim, play beach games or enjoy fresh seafood at nearby restaurants.

Another popular attraction is the Marble Mountains. They have beautiful caves, temples and amazing views. Many tourists visit Da Nang in summer because the weather is sunny and suitable for outdoor activities. The local people are friendly and welcoming, so visitors often have a wonderful time there.

11. Where is Da Nang?

A. In northern Viet Nam

B. In central Viet Nam

C. In southern Viet Nam

D. In western Viet Nam

12. What is My Khe Beach famous for?

A. Its long sandy beach and clear water

B. Its large shopping centres

C. Its high mountains

D. Its traditional markets

13. What can visitors do at My Khe Beach?

A. Go skiing  B. Climb trees  C. Swim  D. Visit museums

14. What can tourists find in the Marble Mountains?

A. Factories and shops

B. Caves and temples

C. Lakes and farms

D. Schools and hospitals

15. Why do many tourists visit Da Nang in summer?

A. Because the weather is suitable for outdoor activities.

B. Because it often snows.

C. Because the city is very quiet.

D. Because all shops are closed.

2. Read the passage and answer the questions (1.5 points).

Tom is a student from England. He is staying with a Vietnamese family during his holiday. Every morning, he gets up at six o’clock and has breakfast with the family. He usually eats bread, eggs and fruit. After breakfast, he learns some Vietnamese words with his host brother.

In the afternoon, Tom often visits interesting places in the city. He enjoys trying Vietnamese food, especially pho and spring rolls. He thinks Vietnamese people are kind and the food is delicious. He hopes to come back to Viet Nam next summer.

16. Where is Tom from?

17. Who does Tom stay with during his holiday?

18. What time does he get up every morning?

19. What does he learn after breakfast?

20. Which Vietnamese foods does Tom enjoy?

IV. WRITING (3.0 points)

A. Find and correct the mistake in each sentence (1.5 points).

21. My friends is playing basketball in the schoolyard.

22. There are a television in the living room.

23. You should to drink more water every day.

B. Write complete sentences using the given words (1.5 points).

24. We / visit / our grandparents / next Sunday.

25. The Nile / long / river / in the world.

26. There / not / any / milk / in the bottle.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1. Đáp án trắc nghiệm

Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án
1	C	6	C
2	B	7	D
3	B	8	D
4	B	9	D
5	B	10	D
11	B	12	A
13	C	14	B
15	A

B. Đáp án đọc hiểu và viết

16. He is from England.

17. He stays with a Vietnamese family.

18. He gets up at six o’clock.

19. He learns some Vietnamese words.

20. He enjoys pho and spring rolls.

21. is → are

22. are → is

23. to drink → drink

24. We will visit our grandparents next Sunday.

25. The Nile is the longest river in the world.

26. There isn’t any milk in the bottle.

ĐỀ THI SỐ 3

Tải miễn phí đề thi số 3 file Word và PDF

Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success | Thời gian: 45 phút

I. PRONUNCIATION (1.0 point)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

1. A. giraffe  B. gym  C. giant  D. garden
2. A. food  B. moon  C. spoon  D. cook
3. A. reads  B. sings  C. opens  D. helps
4. A. bread  B. head  C. ready  D. seat

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (3.0 points)

Choose the best answer A, B, C or D.

5. My brother is interested ______ playing chess.

A. in  B. on  C. at  D. for

6. We ______ our grandparents every Sunday.

A. visits  B. visiting  C. visit  D. are visit

7. There are ______ beautiful pictures on the wall.

A. any  B. much  C. a  D. some

8. Mount Everest is the ______ mountain in the world.

A. high  B. higher  C. highest  D. most high

9. You ______ cross the street when the traffic light is red.

A. must  B. mustn’t  C. should  D. can

10. My father ______ a newspaper right now.

A. reads  B. read  C. is reading  D. reading

III. READING (3.0 points)

1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to fill in each blank (1.5 points).

My school library is a quiet and comfortable place. It is on the second floor, next to the computer room. There are many books about science, history, geography and literature. Students can borrow books and read them in the library.

The library opens at 7 a.m. and closes at 5 p.m. every weekday. There are also several computers that students can use to find information for their school projects. I often go there after class because I love reading and learning new things.

11. The school library is on the ______ floor.

A. first  B. second  C. third  D. fourth

12. What is next to the library?

A. The computer room  B. The playground  C. The canteen  D. The music room

13. Which books can students find in the library?

A. Only comic books

B. Only English books

C. Books about different subjects

D. Only story books

14. What time does the library close?

A. 3 p.m.  B. 4 p.m.  C. 5 p.m.  D. 6 p.m.

15. Why does the writer often go to the library?

A. To play computer games

B. To meet friends

C. To have lunch

D. To read and learn new things

2. Read the passage and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F) (1.5 points).

In Viet Nam, people celebrate Tet in different ways. Before the holiday, families often clean their houses and decorate them with flowers. Many people buy peach blossoms or apricot blossoms to make their homes more beautiful.

During Tet, family members gather together to enjoy traditional food. Children usually wear new clothes and receive lucky money in red envelopes. People visit relatives and friends and give each other good wishes. Tet is a special time for families to spend time together.

16. Vietnamese families often clean their houses before Tet.

17. People never decorate their homes with flowers.

18. Children may receive lucky money in red envelopes.

19. People visit relatives and friends during Tet.

20. Tet is a time when families spend time together.

IV. WRITING (3.0 points)

A. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences (1.5 points).

21. is / the / in / largest / Vietnam / city / Ho Chi Minh City

22. always / before / washes / dinner / his hands / he

23. shouldn’t / wild animals / feed / visitors / at the zoo

B. Rewrite the sentences without changing their meanings (1.5 points).

24. The bookstore is behind the post office.

→ The post office is ________________________________.

25. My bag is heavier than your bag.

→ Your bag is _____________________________________.

26. It is important to do exercise regularly.

→ You should ______________________________________.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1. Đáp án trắc nghiệm

Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án
1	D	6	C
2	D	7	D
3	D	8	C
4	D	9	B
5	A	10	C
11	B	12	A
13	C	14	C
15	D

2. Đáp án đọc hiểu và viết

16. True

17. False

18. True

19. True

20. True

21. Ho Chi Minh City is the largest city in Viet Nam.

22. He always washes his hands before dinner.

23. Visitors shouldn’t feed wild animals at the zoo.

24. The post office is in front of the bookstore.

25. Your bag is lighter than my bag.

26. You should do exercise regularly.

Mẹo ôn tập tiếng Anh học kì 1 lớp 6 hiệu quả

Ngoài việc luyện đề, học sinh cần xây dựng phương pháp ôn tập phù hợp để ghi nhớ kiến thức và hạn chế những lỗi sai thường gặp.

• Học từ vựng theo chủ đề: Hãy chia từ mới thành từng nhóm như trường học, nhà ở, bạn bè…Mỗi ngày nên dành khoảng 15 – 20 phút để học từ mới, đặt câu và ôn lại những từ đã học.

• Nắm chắc cấu trúc ngữ pháp: Các cấu trúc hiện tại đơn, hiện tại tiếp diễn, so sánh hơn và động từ khuyết thiếu cần được luyện tập thường xuyên. Học sinh nên tự đặt ví dụ cho từng cấu trúc để hiểu cách sử dụng.

• Luyện kỹ năng đọc hiểu: Khi làm bài đọc, nên đọc câu hỏi trước để xác định thông tin cần tìm. Sau đó đọc đoạn văn, gạch chân từ khóa và đối chiếu với nội dung bài.

• Luyện đề trong thời gian quy định: Hãy thử làm đề trong 45 phút như khi kiểm tra thực tế. Sau mỗi lần luyện tập, cần kiểm tra đáp án, ghi lại những câu sai và ôn lại kiến thức liên quan.

Hy vọng bộ đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 6 Global Success trên sẽ giúp các em học sinh củng cố kiến thức và làm quen với cấu trúc đề kiểm tra trước khi bước vào kỳ thi chính thức. Các em nên chủ động ôn tập từ vựng, ngữ pháp, luyện phát âm, đọc hiểu và thực hành viết câu thường xuyên để nâng cao khả năng vận dụng tiếng Anh.